If you need another copy of the DRM: http://avalon.law.yale.edu/18th_century/rightsof.asp
DPD: How does the general good impact the equality and liberty of the citizens?
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11 comments:
My IQ is:
When Declaration of the Rights of Man - 1789 writes "Liberty consists in the freedom to do everything which injures no one else; hence the exercise of the natural rights of each man has no limits except those which assure to the other members of the society the enjoyment of the same rights."
Does it mean that "when one person has all the rights to do what he wants to do such as harm, he looses some of the rights and protection given by the law at the same time?"
If so, should everyone give up their liberty and have protection ginen by the laws?
-Nicolas
My IQ is:
When the Declaration of the Rights of Man writes," Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social distinctions may be founded only upon the general good." Does it mean that men are born the same, and by the time they grow older they will still have the same rights, but what is it that differences them is the social power that they were born into, meaning the general good?
Also when it writes," No body nor individual may exercise any authority which does not proceed directly from the nation." Does it mean the someone with more authority is the one that can make laws or show authority? If so wouldn't it be that maybe the person that is showing more authority might intervene with someone elses rights that was mentioned in the 1st article?
Cici Connell
My IQ:
When Declaration of the Rights of Man states, “Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social distinctions may be founded only upon the general good,” does this mean that all humans are equally born and have same rights until he died but general good can affect the right and equality, for example, when a citizen has a limit right or less right, the solely reason of that is general good? If so, why declaration of the rights of man included content that all men remain free and equal in rights?
~JY~
When the National Assembly writes "Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social Distinctions may be founded only upon the general good." does it mean that when men are born they are all free meaning they have no one telling them what to do, and that when a man is born he is the exact same as the other man beside him? And that nothing like money, power or respect can make one person have more rights than the other, but only the general good can? If so, that all this power, money and respect don't matter, is it that some people get more saying if everyone are equal in rights?
-Gustaf Bogered
My IQ is:
When Declaration of the Rights of Man writes "Men are born free and equal in rights. Social distinctions may be founded only upon the general good." Is it saying that because all men are free and all equal, regardless of their social status, all have a say in this "general good"? If so, does the general good play in only social distinctions and is it used by majority of the people? What exactly is the play of this general good?
When the Declaration of the Rights of Man writes "Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social Distinctions may be founded only upon the general good." Do they mean that everyone is equal and deserve every single right everyone else receives? If so, would this also mean that they would demand the same salary as someone else, or demand a higher salary if they have done a good deed?
When the Declaration of the Rights of Man states, "Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social distinctions may be founded only upon the general good." does this mean that all men are created to be what the choose and to have the same rights as everyone else and that social classes can only be made for the good of the people. If so, does this mean that if the general good calls for there to be an extremely poor class or an extremely rich and abusive class that that is morally correct according to the Declaration?
When the "Declaration of the man - 1789" writes "Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social distinctions maybe founded only upon the general good", does he mean that men can not control other, expect if this on broke the law? Is so, what would happen to the nobles that wins money and good by controlling and forcing paysant to work fro them?
-Thomas.H
When the National Assembly writes: ''Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Social distinctions may be founded only upon the general good.''Does it mean that men are going to be equal in all the occasions, but only those that would be bad for other people (going against the general good), until the end of their lives? If so, what would be harmful to other people and what would be those social distinctions?
when the declaration of the rights of man states "the ignorance, neglect, or contempt of the rights of man are the sole cause of public calamities and of the corruption of governments" does it mean that the only reason for the coruption of governments and general chaos comes from the overlooking of the rights of man? also does "The aim of all political association is the preservation of the natural and imprescriptible rights of man. These rights are liberty, property, security, and resistance to oppression." mean that the only thing a government should worry about is the protection of the rights of liberty, property, security and resistance to oppression? does "Law can only prohibit such actions as are hurtful to society" mean that the law can only act when encountered with actions that are harmful to society? and finaly, does "Law is the expression of the general will" mean that the law is the representation of the general will? if so, wouldnt the text be contradicting itself because acording to the first quote the sole perpouse of the government is to protect the rights of the individual, yet it is withing the power of the government to overide these rights when they are in conflict with the well being of society? does this mean that the government gives more importance to the colective rather the individual? and if so wouldnt this go against the governments main purpouse, which acording to the document, is to protect the individual?
My IQ is:
When the declaration of the rights of man writes: "Law can only prohibit such actions as are harmful to society. Nothing may be prevented which is not forbidden by law, and no one may be forced to do anything not provided by the law."
Does it mean that the law or the declaration doesn't permit all men actions because it could destroy the commune or town, and it could affect peoples life? And also that no one could break the laws, by forcing it ?
If so, does the government punish all this citizens that break the law, by doing actions that are contrary of what the law says?
~Pierfrancesco
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